Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 02:18
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
A Japanese lander crashed on the Moon after losing track of its location - Ars Technica
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.